The price of a television is marked down for a weekend sale. After the sale is over, the price of the television is back to its original price. Are the percent of decrease and the percent of increase the same? Explain your thinking

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  No. The bases for computing percentages are different.

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose the original price is $100 and it is marked down 20%. Then the amount of markdown is 0.20×$100 = $20. The marked-down price is then $100 -20 = $80.

After the sale, the price increase of $20 is computed using the base price of $80:

  increase % = $20/$80 × 100% = 25%

The percentage decrease and increase are different because they are computed using different numbers as the reference.

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Additional comment

The closer to zero the percentages are, the closer they are to being the same. A 1% markdown will equate to a 1.010101...% markup, for example.

3

step-by-step explanation:

in standard form:

a= dictionaries

b= maps

you have to buy 3 dictionaries, so put a 3 next to the a (dictionaries) so that you can multiply them by each other.

a3+b= 60 (the amount of money you have)

we already know the cost of a=15 so replace a with $15

($15 x 3)+b=60

multiply 15 and 3 to get $45 and replace it with $45

45+b=60

and then replace b with 15 to get the total:

45+15=60

that means you have $15 left after buying 3 dictionaries.

15 divided by the cost of a map ($5) equals 3.

so you can buy 3 maps.

sorry if it was confusing!

the function makes a strait line horizontally with no x intercept but a y intercept at 9.