It is suggested that the judicial branch (courts) is just as political as the executive (governor) and legislative (legislature) branches of Texas government. Do you agree or disagree and why?

No, I do not think so.

Explanation:

I believe that since the courts are supposed to be non-biased they are non-biased. If they were biased we would have an infinite stronghold of certain political parties in the state. But since opinions have changed there isn't any substantial evidence there is such bias.

(This is an opinionated question, there is no real answer and there isnt a reason for us to do it for you)

answer:

d. because dr. laguardia selected a widely used measure, his study generalizes to has strong external validity. external validity has limited external validity. other applications of this measure.

the widely used measure that he applied to his experiment was the benton facial recognition test. it employed on to football players and as result, only players who suffered brain concussions did not pas this test. and although it has an external validity, it is limited because it isn't general to apply to other population.