Why does Chamberlin suggest appeasement? Under what conditions would he fight?

at the time of Hitler´s ascension to power (1933) Britain is still world power and focal point of its power is situated in the seas, i.e. outside continental Europe. Hitler´s ambitions were situated in the East (Eastern Europe especially) which was a part of Europe Britain was not interested in. Chamberlain represented conservative government, i.e. continuation of 19th-century policy. Appeasement was a way how to satisfy Hitler (to give him what he wanted, for ex. Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia) to keep peace in Britain and its Empire.

Explanation: Chamberlain and conservative party of that time were not aware of Hitler´s capacities. They believed he would respect treaties, they believed he was a serious politician. He was not. They were naive.

im sorry i dont know a lot of this but ill try my best

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