Hey help me plz i will mark brainliest

The answer to your question is given below.

Explanation:

Mechanical advantage (MA) = Load (L)/Effort (E)

MA = L/E

Velocity ratio (VR) = Distance moved by load (l) / Distance moved by effort (e)

VR = l/e

Efficiency = work done by machine (Wd) /work put into the machine (Wp) x 100

Efficiency = Wd/Wp x100

Recall:

Work = Force x distance

Therefore,

Work done by machine (wd) = load (L) x distance (l)

Wd = L x l

Work put into the machine (Wp) = effort (E) x distance (e)

Wp = E x e

Note: the load and effort are measured in Newton (N), while the distance is measured in metre (m)

Efficiency = Wd/Wp x100

Efficiency = (L x l) / (E x e) x 100

Rearrange

Efficiency = L/E ÷ l/e x 100

But:

MA = L/E

VR = l/e

Therefore,

Efficiency = L/E ÷ l/e x 100

Efficiency = MA ÷ VR x 100

Efficiency = MA / VR x 100

russian is not my first language, so i'm afraid i can't write out an answer in russian, but hopefully you can find a way to do so. here's my best translation of the problem: you're given a plot of a particle's position in one-dimensional space over time, and you're asked to find either the total distance traveled by the particle after 6 seconds had elapsed, or the total displacement of the particle after 6 seconds.

if you want the total distance traveled, you would first need to determine the particle's velocity as a function of time, then integrate that over the 6-second interval. we know the position function is quadratic with roots at 0 and 6, so we have

where is unknown. because the position is parabolic, there is symmetry about the midpoint at , and we know that

so that the position function is

which means the velocity is

then the total distance traveled is

so the total distance traveled is 20 m.

on the other hand, if you want to find displacement: the particle starts at and ends at , so its displacement is 0.