Use algebraic methods to prove that the given function has an x-intercept that is equal to its y-intercept. in your final answer, include all of your calculations. y = x/x^2 - 1

We have that , so we can factor the denominator to get:

Now, when x=0 , y=0; therefore the y-intercept is zero.
And, when y=0 , x=0; therefore the x-intercept is also zero.

We can conclude that both the y-intercept and the x-intercept are equal zero.