The table at the right shows speed limit in some foreign countries in kilometers per hour 1 km is equal to Spohn .6 miles what are the speed limits in miles per hour

step-by-step explanation:

yes it represnts a functio, their are not 2 of the same numbers on the both sides

< xcy ≅ < xby

step-by-step explanation:

in δcax and δbax,

so, δcax ≅ δbax (side-angle-side or sas)

since δcax ≅ δbax, we can conclude < acx ≅ < abx

in δacy and δaby,

so, δacy ≅ δaby (side-angle-side or sas)

since δacy ≅ δaby, we can conclude < acy ≅ < aby

now,

< acy ≅ < aby

=> < acx + < xcy ≅ < abx + < xby

=> < acx + < xcy ≅ < acx + < xby   (since < acx ≅ < abx already proved above)

subtracting < acx from both sides, we get

< acx + < xcy -< acx ≅ < acx + < xby -< acx

cancelling out < acx and -< acx from both sides, we get

< xcy ≅ < xby (proved)

after going and makeing graphs i would go with a,

there is nothing that is matches the graph. if there was i would show you. but therefore my answer is a.

hope i

-lavira: )