Fill in the missing statements and reasons in this proof. Number your reasons 1 through 5 as they would be shown in the chart below. ty Given: m∠LOM = m∠JKI;
m∠MON = m∠IKH
Prove: m∠LON = m∠HKJ

part a

x     y

0     8

1     7.5

2     7

3     6.5

4     6

5     5.5  

for every hour i deducted .5 inches from the length of the candle

part b

it is a function because for every x value there is only one y value

part   c

for every x value there is only one y value

x       y

0       8

1       7.6

2       7.2

3       6.8

step-by-step explanation:

b because it contains 40% of the possible results from the random list.  

0,1,2,3 v 4,5,6,7,8,9  

4 integers to 6 integers  

40% success vs 60% fail

step-by-step explanation:

(a) common ratio in the given sequence is, 3

(b) push ups will do kendall do on the 20th week

step-by-step explanation:

geometric sequence is a sequence of numbers that follows a pattern were the next term is found by multiplying by a constant called the common ratio(r)

(a)

given the sequence: 6 , 18 , 54 , 162 ,

this sequence is geometric sequence where each term is 3 times the previous term.

therefore,

common ratio(r) = 3.

(b)

a formula for nth term of geometric sequence is given by;

,   where r is the common ratio between the successive terms and is the first term,

to find how many push ups will kendall do on the 20th week.

here. n = 20th term.

in the given sequence first term

then;

simplify:

therefore, push ups will do kendall do on the 20th week