Suppose an urn has six balls, three red, two blue, and one yellow. On any draw from the urn, all balls in the urn are equally likely to be drawn. Suppose that two balls are drawn, in sequence without replacement, that is, the second ball is drawn without replacing the first ball in the urn. What is the probability that the second ball drawn is blue

1 / 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of balls :

Red, R = 3 ; Blue, B = 2 ; Yellow, Y = 1

Total = 6

From two draws without replacement, probability that 2nd draw is blue :

Possibilities :

P(RB) or P(YB) or P(BB)

P(RB) = 3/6 * 2/5 = 6/30

P(YB) = 1/6 * 2/5 = 2 /30

P(BB) = 2/6 * 1/5 = 2 / 30

HENCE,

P(RB) + P(YB) + P(BB)

6/30 + 2/30 + 2/30 = 10/30 = 1/3

step-by-step explanation: the answer for wha if rt is 10 centimeters long, and wha is st? it’s 6

the functions have the same rate of change i think. i narrowed it down to this answer and "the rate of change of tour 1 is greater" but i got it wrong using that answer so im assuming its the answer above. (this is a question i also answered from the iready site if anyone needs a reference)