In a random sample of 80 Americans, 44 wished that they were rich. In a random sample of 90 Europeans, 41 wished that they were rich. At α = 0.01 , can we conclude there is a difference in the proportions?

answer: it is d

step-by-step explanation:

where's the diagram?

step-by-step explanation:

aloha~! my name is zalgo and i am here to you out on this amazing day. to answer your question, yes, nonzero numbers can have a greatest common factor and that would be 1. still don't get it? let me considering every number is divisible by 1 and hence every number has 1 as a factor of theirs. so, if 2 nonzero numbers didn't share any gcf (greatest common factor), they would still have a factor in common and that would be 1.

i hope that this ! : p

"stay and stay proud! " - zalgo

(by the way, do you mind marking me as brainliest? i'd greatly appreciate it! mahalo! x3)