Can someone please help me, I will give brainliest

3-4

step-by-step explanation:

the answer is 3-4 because both 45 and 60 has a multiple of 15.

45/3=15

60/4=15

therefore the odds against selecting a red is 4-3

(w – 2.5)(w + 2.5)

(–4v – 9)(–4v + 9)

step-by-step explanation:

the graph in the attached figure

step-by-step explanation:

we have

using a graphing tool

the graph in the attached figure

the roots are ( x-intercepts) x=-0.5,x=1,x=3

the y-intercept is the point (0,3)

answer: c, the green line

step-by-step explanation:

there is no black line, eliminate b.

simple interest implies periodic payments, but the red line shows no payments, eliminate d.

simple interest has equal payments. if paid say every day, the graph is about a straight line (actually a stairstep).

the yellow line is not straight, eliminate a.

check: the green line is straight, answer is c.

simple interest with positive interest rate gives a straight line sloping up to the right. green line:

g(t) = $100 + ($200-$100) ÷ (20 years) × (t years)

= $100 + (4%/year) × ($100)(t years)

incidentally, the yellow line curving upward represents continuously compounded interest

y = $100 × 2^(t years / (14 assuming the yellow line hits $200 at 14 years. 2^0 is 1, so y(0) = $100; 2^(14/14) is 2, so y(14) = $200.