Approximate the distance between (-2, 3) and (6, 9) to the nearest tenth, if necessary.

answer: download photomath it's legit.

step-by-step explanation:

g(x) = 3*(8(3^(x−2))+2)

g(x) = 24 (3^(x-2) )+6

the factor is 2

step-by-step explanation:

let f(x)=8(3^(x−2)+2)

to stretch a graph by 3, it would be 3f(x)

g(x) =3f(x)

g(x) = 3*(8(3^(x−2))+2)

g(x) = 24 (3^(x-2) )+6

x     −2     0     2     4     6

f(x) 1/64 1/16   1/4     1     4

1/64 * z * z = 1/16

i multiplies by z twice because it its 2 steps from -2 to 0

1/64 z^2 = 1/16

multiply by 64 to clear the fraction on the left side

1/4 * 64 z^2 =1/16 *64

z^2 = 4

take the square root of each side

sqrt(z^2) = ±sqrt(4)

z = ±2  

we are multiplying by 2 each time.

i think it's eleven too, don't woosh me here, but according to the "experts" it's 2.

the proof starts from the peano postulates, which define the natural

numbers n. n is the smallest set satisfying these postulates:

  p1.   1 is in n.

  p2.   if x is in n, then its "successor" x' is in n.

  p3.   there is no x such that x' = 1.

  p4.   if x isn't 1, then there is a y in n such that y' = x.

  p5.   if s is a subset of n, 1 is in s, and the implication

      (x in s => x' in s) holds, then s = n.

then you have to define addition recursively:

  def: let a and b be in n. if b = 1, then define a + b = a'

      (using p1 and p2). if b isn't 1, then let c' = b, with c in n

      (using p4), and define a + b = (a + c)'.

then you have to define 2:

  def:   2 = 1'

2 is in n by p1, p2, and the definition of 2.

theorem:   1 + 1 = 2

proof: use the first part of the definition of + with a = b = 1.

      then 1 + 1 = 1' = 2   q.e.d.

note: there is an alternate formulation of the peano postulates which

replaces 1 with 0 in p1, p3, p4, and p5. then you have to change the

definition of addition to this:

  def: let a and b be in n. if b = 0, then define a + b = a.

      if b isn't 0, then let c' = b, with c in n, and define

      a + b = (a + c)'.

you also have to define 1 = 0', and 2 = 1'. then the proof of the

theorem above is a little different:

proof: use the second part of the definition of + first:

      1 + 1 = (1 + 0)'

      now use the first part of the definition of + on the sum in

      parentheses:   1 + 1 = (1)' = 1' = 2   q.e.d.

since we know that the two functions are equal, f (x) = g

(x), therefore when we equate the two equations the result should be similar to

3x = x – 4:

a. f(x) = 3x, g(x) = x – 4

equating the two functions:

3x = x – 4             (correct)

so we now got our answer (a)