Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

Since f(x) has a domain and range of all real numbers, it's inverse also has a domain and range of all real numbers.  Furthermore since every value pair of (x,y) for f(x) is unique, its inverse will also have the inverse unique value pairs (y,x).

The first one, i believe, would be correct. all the others have one thing in common, and that's that they have repeating numbers. in the second one, x and y have repeating 6's and 3's, and in the third, x and y have repeating 6's as well. in the last one, there are repeating 3's. the first one has no repeating numbers.

The answer is b) 32 your welcome