If f^-1(x) is the inverse of f(x), which statement must be true? check all that apply.
a. f(f^-1(x))=x
b. f^-1(f(x))=x
c. the range of f^-1(x) is the range of f(x)
d. the range of f^-1(x) is the domain of f(x)
e. the domain of f^-1(x) is the range of f(x)
f. the domain od f^-1(x) is the domain of f(x)

The correct options are:

option: A        

option: B

Option: D

The range of F^-1(x) is the domain of F(x)

Option: E

The domain of F^-1(x) is the range of F(x)

We know that for a given function F(X) and it's inverse i.e. the composition of both the results in a identity function no matter what the order is such that:

Also, for a inverse of a given function the domain and the range gets interchange.

i.e. the domain of the function becomes the range of it's inverse and the range of the function becomes the  domain of it's inverse.

proofs involving isosceles triangles often require special consideration because an isosceles triangle has several distinct properties that do not apply to normal triangles.(more about triangle types) therefore, when you are trying to prove that two triangles are congruent, and one or both triangles, are isosceles you have a few theorems that you can use to make your life easier.

step-by-step explanation:

an isosceles triangle has two congruent sides and two congruent angles. the congruent angles are called the base angles and the other angle is known as the vertex angle. ∠bac and ∠bca are the base angles of the triangle picture on the left. the vertex angle is ∠abc

just pick what you think i need more time let me know if this

step-by-step explanation: