Mathematics, 17.03.2021 23:50 floresvanexel4pejp1p

SHOULD BE EASY I'M JUST STUP|D <3 WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST The distribution of tips given by customers who buy one cup of coffee is bimodal with a mean of $0.29 and a standard deviation of $0.1164. If a random sample of 50 tips from customers who buy one cup of coffee is selected, is it appropriate to calculate the probability of a sample mean being more than $0.32 using an approximately Normal model?

Yes, the population of all people who buy one cup of coffee is extremely large, so the shape of the sampling distribution of x is not a concern, and P(x> 32) = 0.0372.

Yes, since the sample size 50 is large enough, the sampling distribution for x would be approximately Normal, and P(x>32) = 0.0372.

Yes, since the sample size 50 is large enough, the sampling distribution for x would be approximately Normal, and P(x> 32) = 0.3983.

No, it is not appropriate to estimate the probability using an approximately Normal model because the population is not Normal, and the sample size is not reasonably large.

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