Mathematics, 07.02.2021 23:20 BreBreDoeCCx
Ich of the following explains why f(x) = log4x
des not have a y-intercept? Check all that applythat apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any rintara
Answers: 3
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Ich of the following explains why f(x) = log4x
des not have a y-intercept? Check all that applythat...
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