Whoever can answer first will get brainliest since its a bit long.

(a) (8%) compute the probability of an even integer among the 100 integers 1! , 2! , 3! , until 100! (here n! is n factorial or n*(n-1)*(n-2) *… 1) (b) (16%) compute the probability of an even integer among the 100 integers: 1, 1+2, 1+2+3, 1+2+3+4, …., 1+2+3+… + 99, and 1+2+3+… + 100

When you answer this can you explain

Given: m∠ adb = m∠cdb ad ≅ dc prove: m∠ bac = m∠bca lol