What is the reason for the step taken from the proof below? 2 1 and 2 2 are vertical angles
Given
21 22
?
Congruent Complements Theorem
Linear Pair Postulate
Congruent Supplements Theorem
Vertical Ángles Theorem

The reason for the step taken from the proof is vertical angles theorem.

Vertically opposite angles are equals.

Therefore,

if ∠1 and 2 are vertical angles, they are equal.

This means the angles are congruent and are the same.

Therefore,

∠1 ≅ ∠2 follows the vertical angle theorem

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Option (4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Vertical angles theorem;

"Two vertically opposite angles formed by the intersection of two straight lines are congruent"

By this theorem,

If ∠1 and ∠2 are the vertical angles                            Given

∠1 ≅ ∠2                                                                Vertical angles theorem

Therefore, Option (4) is the correct option.

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step-by-step explanation: