The function f(x) = In(x) has a domain of all real numbers greater than zero and a range of all real numbers. The inverse of this function is f-?(x) = ell. Which conclusion can be drawn by comparing the two functions?

The domain of f(x) is all real numbers and the range is all real numbers.

The domain of f(x) is all real numbers greater than 0 and the range is all real numbers.

The domain of f-1(x) is all real numbers and the range is all real numbers greater than 0.

The domain off-1(x) is all real numbers greater than 0 and the range is all real numbers greater than 0.

The domain of f-1(x) is all real numbers and the range is all real numbers greater than 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

The inverse function of f(x) = ln(x) is:

f-1(x) = exp(x).

And as:

The domain of f(x) is: x ∈ R, x > 0.

The range of f(x) is: x ∈ R

Then for the inverse, we should have the opposite:

The domain of f-1(x) is: x ∈ R  (the exponential function does not have any problems like the logarithm, so you can actually input any real value).

The domain is: x ∈ R, x > 0.l

Because, for example:

e^0 = 1

e^-1 = 1/e > 0.

e^-n = 1/e^n > 0.

e^x is always positive, then the range is the set of all real numbers large than zero.

0.84 dang lotta people are looking for this lol or if you round up its 1 but the overall answer to that is 0.84

step-by-step explanation:

d. it is a convex pentagon because it has five sides and none of the sides would extend into the inside of the polygon.

step-by-step explanation: