If f and g are functions, then (fog)(x) is always equal to (gof)(x)

true or false

The given statement is False

The following information should be considered:

based on the above calculations we can see that equation (1) and equation (2) are not equal to each other.

Learn more: link

False

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is a counter example:

● f(x) = x^2

● g(x) = 3x

● (f○g)(x) = (3x)^2 = 9x^2 (1)

● (g○f)(x) = 3(x^2) = 3x^2 (2)

We can see that (1) and (2) aren't equal to each others.

x=-2

infinite number of lines, so there is an infinite number of equations.

step-by-step explanation:

there are an infinite number of line that passes through the point (-2,5)

x=-2   is one line that passes through the point

y = 5 is another line that passes through the point

(these two lines are perpendicular to each other).

since the number of   numbers are infinite and the slope is the ratio of two numbers,(change in y over change in x) we can have an infinite number of slopes.     our only condition is that it passes through the point (-2,5)