Mathematics, 24.07.2020 06:01 mariahdixon80
if f(x)=4−x, then the graphs of 1/4f(x) and f(x)−3 both have a y-intercept of 1. Does this mean that multiplying f(x) by 1/4 and subtracting 3 from f(x) transform the graph in the same way?
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if f(x)=4−x, then the graphs of 1/4f(x) and f(x)−3 both have a y-intercept of 1. Does this mean that...
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