NEED HELP ASAP!! IF YOU KNOW HOW TO DO IT GO AHEAD BUT IF YOU DONT, DONT ANSWER

the answer   is 200

step-by-step explanation:

this is a problem about poisson probabilities.   i don't know if you've

already studied poisson distributions, or if you have a place to look

to read more about the subject.  

here's how you can see a poisson distribution coming.   when there are

a lot of events that may happen at any time (or any place), and when

you're counting how many of them happen at a particular time (or a

particular place), and each event is independent of the others, then

the result is a poisson distribution.   this is roughly true for the

chocolate chips; one chip being in a cookie has only a small effect on

the probability that another chip will be in the cookie.

once you know you have a poisson distribution, you know a lot.   there

is only one parameter to a poisson distribution, so if you know the

mean, you know everything.   the form of the distribution is

  probability of n chips = {[e^(-x)]*(x^n)} / (n! )

5   1/4   miles per hour

step-by-step explanation:

15   3/4 / 3 = 5   1/4

aloha~! my name is zalgo and i am here to you out on this amazing day. to answer your question, yes, nonzero numbers can have a greatest common factor and that would be 1. still don't get it? let me considering every number is divisible by 1 and hence every number has 1 as a factor of theirs. so, if 2 nonzero numbers didn't share any gcf (greatest common factor), they would still have a factor in common and that would be 1.

i hope that this ! : p

"stay and stay proud! " - zalgo

(by the way, do you mind marking me as brainliest? i'd greatly appreciate it! mahalo! x3)

there is no graph so i cant sorry

step-by-step explanation: