Can someone help plsss :(

i think c. but don't trust it.

step-by-step explanation:

statement #3: proof- ang is congruent to ang ecd : angles are congruent.  

step-by-step explanation:

1: the missing angles in statement #3  

a.) acb  

reason- the reason why the answer is acb is because angle ecd and angle acb are both the same size *that's what the word congruent means this is really simple.  

2: the missing word in reason #3  

c.) vertical  

reason- the reason why the answer is vertical is because the angles in that diagram on figure 2 is slanted, which is vertical, and the e and a both lay on vertical lines. along with the other's, but e and a are the 2 main points you want to focus on. and c is kind of like your starting point, because c is for both angles, not just one.  

i hope that was and understanding.

y∈r, 8> y≥0

hope i !

p.s the first bit only matters if you know what that means.

p.p.s brainliest would really

hello there!

i believe the answer is

(cot2+1)/sec2=cot2

    csc2/sec2=cot2

  (1/sin2)/(1/cos2)=cot2

  (1/sin2)(cos2/1)=cot2

  cos2/sin2=cot2

  (1/tan2)=cot2

  (cot2)=(cot2)

hope this !

hyperz ^_^