Using the First Corollary to the Inscribed Angle Theorem (edge)
Is the measure of <1...
Mathematics, 05.05.2020 20:19 adswadsaasdads
Using the First Corollary to the Inscribed Angle Theorem (edge)
Is the measure of <1 equal to the measure of <2? Why?
yes, because they intercept the same arc
no, because the sides of 22 are longer
no, because they intercept the circle at different
points
106°
Answers: 1
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