The article "Behavioural Effects of Mobile Telephone Use During Simulated Driving"† reported that for a sample of 20 experimental subjects, the sample correlation coefficient for x = age and y = time since the subject had acquired a driving license (yr) was 0.97. Why do you think the value of r is so close to 1? (The article's authors give an explanation.)

Step-by-step explanation:

Sample size N is equal to 20 experimental subjects (small sample size). Sample correlation coefficient r = 0.97

The variables are:

X = Age of subject (in years)

Y = Time since subject acquired a driving license (in years)

The general reason why the value of r for 2 variables will be very close to 1 is that the magnitude of the effect of the phenomenon-of-interest (behavioural effects of mobile telephone use during simulated driving) is very large.

r = 0.97 is a positive figure also. This implies that the phenomenon-of-interest in variable X and in variable Y move in the same direction or increase simultaneously.

For the r of 0.97, the behavioural effect of mobile telephone use during simulated driving as related to the age of the experimental subjects, IS ALMOST THE SAME MAGNITUDE as the behavioural effect of mobile telephone use during simulated driving as related to the time (in years) since subjects acquired a driving license.

This is the reason why the correlation coefficient here is very close to 1.

i think it is everything has to equal 180 so, if i correct 4=c. 6=d. 8=a. 7=b. and the last question would be c. because they are parallel lines and they are congruent.

step-by-step explanation:

the reason everything has to equal to 180 is because that is how it works. i'm guessing that is its rule. 4 and 8 are congruent and parallel so, that would be 30+30 because they have the same number. it would equal 60. 6 and 7 are congruent and parallel so, that would be 30+30 because they have the same number. it would equal 60. 60+60 is 180. so, now you have your answer

c: lkllmn.

hope it's you