Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x
does not have a y-intercept?

f(x) approaches infinity

Step-by-step explanation:

N/A

y-y1=4(x-x1)

step-by-step explanation:

this is point-slope form since you only have 4 as the slope it goes in place of m

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80π/3 or about 83.775

step-by-step explanation:

since a cone is 1/3 of a cylinder, we need to find the base's area. since area = πr^2, we get 16π. then, multiplying this by 5, we get 80π. dividing by 3, since the cone's volume is 1/3 of that of a cylinder's, we get 80π/3.

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