A 35-year-old G3P3 woman requests contraception. Her youngest child is seven years old. Her periods have been regular since she discontinued breastfeeding five years ago. Her past medical history includes depression that is controlled with antidepressants, and a history of deep venous thrombosis. She denies smoking or alcohol use. In the past, oral contraceptive pills have caused her to have severe gastrointestinal upset. What in her history makes her an ideal candidate for progestin-only pills?

E. Deep venous thrombosis

Step-by-step explanation:

According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:

A. Depression

B. Smoking history

C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives

D. Lactation history

E. Deep venous thrombosis

This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.

b) well because you get well

step-by-step explanation:

i think you should think about the question and not look online.