Let x be a random day of the week, coded so that monday is 1, tuesday is 2, etc. (so x takes values 1, 7, with equal probabilities). let y be the next day after x (again represented as an integer between 1 and 7). do x and y have the same distribution

Yes. Have the same distribution.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that X is a random day of the week, coded so that Monday is 1, Tuesday is 2, etc. (so X takes values 1, 2,..., 7, with equal probabilities).

Y is the next day after X

So Y can be written as X+1

But since highest value is 7, we can write

Y = X+1 mod 7

i.e. whenever X=7, Y= 8= 1 again.

Thus Y can take values as

Y  1   2   3   4   5   6   7

P(Y) = P(X+1) = 1/7

i.e. Y also has the same distribution as X

50x5=$250

step-by-step explanation:

so, converting firstly the mixed fractions to improper fractions and then "adding".