Consider flipping a weighted coin with the property that the coin comes up heads with probability p and tails with probability 1 − p. suppose that you flip the coin repeatedly until it comes up tails. let x be the random variable for the number of flips completed. find e[x] and var(x). you may use wolfram alpha or another tool to compute the value of any infinite sums.

step-by-step explanation:

i believe its "c" because all of the other options include a but it could be d because there is a way of financing with cash at certain places but its uncommon.

p ÷ r = tan(x)

step-by-step explanation:

given that there is a figure below shows a right triangle: a right triangle is shown with hypotenuse equal to q units and the length of the legs equal to p units and r units.

graph is missing so i will create the graph as per given information.

the angle between the legs having lengths p units and q units is y degrees. the angle between the legs having lengths r units and q units is x degrees.

now we need to find about what is p ÷ r equal to.

so we can use trigonometric ratio tan(x)=[altitude]/[base] to find the value of p ÷ r, because p is the altitude and r is the base.

p ÷ r=tan(x)

hence final answer is p ÷ r=tan(x).

yx = 36

step-by-step explanation:

cos f = opposite side/ hypotenuse

cos f = yw / yx

we know cos f = 4/9 and yw =16

4/9 = 16/yx

multiply each side by yx

4/9 yx = 16/ yx * yx

4/9 yx = 16

multiply each side by 9/4

9/4 * 4/9 yx = 16 *9/4

yx = 36