Pre-calculus, i need major . tutoring has done almost nothing for me and i'm majorly confused, explanations and any would be greatly appreciated!

y = ±(x/4)^¼; f⁻¹(x) is not a function

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 4x⁴

To find the inverse, switch x and y, and solve for y.

x = 4y⁴

x/4 = y⁴

y = ±(x/4)^¼

This is not a function.  Because of the ±, y can have two values for any non-zero value of x.

option a, c,d are correct.

step-by-step explanation:

from the given figure, it is given that z is equidistant from the sides of the triangle rst, then from triangle tzb and triangle szb, we have

tz=sz(given)

bz=zb(common)

therefore, by rhs rule,δtzb ≅δszb

by cpctc, sz≅tz

also, from δctz and δasz,

tz=sz(given)

∠tcz=∠saz(90°)

by rhs rule, δctz ≅ δasz, therefore by cpctc, ∠ctz≅∠asz

also,from δasz and δzsb,

zs=sz(common)

∠zbs=∠saz=90°

by rhs rule, δasz ≅δzsb, therefore, by cpctc, ∠asz≅∠zsb

hence, option a, c,d are correct.