Mathematics, 08.10.2019 00:30 esnyderquintero
If f : {0, 1} n → {0, 1} m is a one way function, g : {0, 1} m → {0, 1} n is also a one way function.
(1). would f = g ◦ f : {0, 1} n → {0, 1} n be a one way function? here f(x) = g(f(
(2). if g or f is not one way, would f still be one way? briefly explain your answer.
Answers: 1
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If f : {0, 1} n → {0, 1} m is a one way function, g : {0, 1} m → {0, 1} n is also a one way fu...
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