Given: p: two linear functions have different coefficients of x. q: the graphs of two functions intersect at exactly one point. which statement is logically equivalent to q → p? if two linear functions have different coefficients of x, then the graphs of the two functions intersect at exactly one point. if two linear functions have the same coefficients of x, then the graphs of the two linear functions do not intersect at exactly one point. if the graphs of two functions do not intersect at exactly one point, then the two linear functions have the same coefficients of x. if the graphs of two functions intersect at exactly one point, then the two linear functions have the same coefficients of x

the simplified form is

step-by-step explanation:

we want to simplify the expression,

let us change the middle bar to a normal division sign to obtain,

we multiply the first fraction by the reciprocal of the second fraction to obtain,

we factor to obtain,

we cancel the common factors to get,

we simplify to get,

the correct answer is b

asdsaddsa

step-by-step explanation:

answer:

step-by-step explanation:

here, the total dishes = 10

dishes having meat = 3 ( chicken, meatloaf and hamburger )

thus, the probability of having meat on the chosen dishes = number of dishes having meat / total dishes

=

therefore, the probability of not having meat = 1- the probability of having meat on the chosen dishes

=

=

=

⇒ option b is correct.