0let x), g() be functions whose fourier transform is f(w), g(w) respectively. let h(e) be the convolution of f(x), g(x) such that its fourier transform h(w)-f)g(w) show that h( g@f(x-ndτ (3 marks) 2π -(p(x)/(x))' + q(x)y(x) = f(x), 0

step-by-step explanation:

points a and b are equidistant from the desired line, so the line you find by using them will go through point r.

using points other than a and b will give the desired line only if they are equidistant from r. if they are randomly located, the perpendicular line you create will not necessarily go through point r, hence will not be a solution to the problem.

statement #3: proof- ang is congruent to ang ecd : angles are congruent.  

step-by-step explanation:

1: the missing angles in statement #3  

a.) acb  

reason- the reason why the answer is acb is because angle ecd and angle acb are both the same size *that's what the word congruent means this is really simple.  

2: the missing word in reason #3  

c.) vertical  

reason- the reason why the answer is vertical is because the angles in that diagram on figure 2 is slanted, which is vertical, and the e and a both lay on vertical lines. along with the other's, but e and a are the 2 main points you want to focus on. and c is kind of like your starting point, because c is for both angles, not just one.  

i hope that was and understanding.