Why is the answer d? i'm having a hard time with the logic of it.

Let's assume the opposite is the case. So let's assume that a = b is true. If so, then f(a) and f(b) would be the same output. This is because we can replace 'b' with 'a', or vice versa. In other words, f(a) = f(b) would be true. But this contradicts the original inequality that f(b) < f(a)

So that is why 'a' cannot equal b. We don't know if a > b or if a < b (unless we are told if the function is strictly decreasing or increasing on the interval from x = a to x = b), so we just leave it as

what is the graph

step-by-step explanation:

ranks (& how to earn them):

-beginner (needs at least 0 points & 0 brainliest answers)

- hand (needs at least 100 points & 0 brainliest answers)

-ambitious   (needs at least 250 points & 0 brainliest answers)

-virtuoso (needs at least 500 points & 5 brainliest answers)

-expert   (needs at least 1,000 points & 10 brainliest answers)

-ace (needs at least 3,000 points & 15 brainliest answers)

-genius   (needs at least 15,000 points & 50 brainliest answers)

how to award brainliest:

you must wait until 2 people answer to award brainliest. i'm pretty sure that it should be next to the "" and "comments" buttons.