History, 04.08.2019 08:30 Josenoguez7431
Why did theodore roosevelt issue the roosevelt corollary to the monroe doctrine? to encourage european powers to control uprisings in central and south america to ensure that only france and england would have interests in panama to protect the panama canal and regional interests in latin america from european involvement to divide north africa between the us and spain for colonizing
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Brainliesttt !me : ) what was the result of indian independence?
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Which events are correlated but do not necessarily have a causal relationship?
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Why did theodore roosevelt issue the roosevelt corollary to the monroe doctrine? to encourage europ...
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