Hey users, I could use some help; Why did the United States industrialize after Britain?

A. It was politically unstable.
B. It lacked access to new inventions.
C. It had not been allowed to manufacture goods.
D. It had a much smaller population.

B It lacked access to new inventions

The answer is C. it had not be allowed to manufacture goods.

Explanation:

The United States also benefited from conflict with Britain. During the War of 1812, Britain stopped shipping goods to the United States. As a result, American industries began to make many of the goods that Americans wanted.

have a great day! ^-^

in mcculloch v. maryland (1819) the supreme court ruled that congress had implied powers under the necessary and proper clause of article i, section 8 of the constitution to create the second bank of the united states and that the state of maryland lacked the power to tax the bank.

gibbons v. ogden, (1824), was a landmark decision in which the supreme court of the united states held that the power to regulate interstate commerce, granted to congress by the commerce clause of the united states constitution, encompassed the power to regulate navigation.

where are the answers

explanation:

be cause we need them