Why did germany default on its loans from the united states in the 1930s?

After the Treaty of Versailles (1919), the losing Germany of World War I was sentenced to pay war reparations to the allies worth 226,000 million gold marks, an impossible figure, set in order to punish the bellicose nation and to curb a rapid recovery that could be followed by new hostilities. Between 1924 and 1929, the Weimar Republic remained almost exclusively from loans received from the United States (more than one billion dollars), partly destined to defray the aforementioned compensation. But the situation for Germany was untenable, and the crack of 29, in addition to huge losses for the lenders, opened the possibility of debt renegotiation: so, in 1930 (Young Plan), that huge payment obligation was formally left reduced ... in half (112,000 million). Between 1931 and 1932, and given the situation of the world economy, USA. decides to forgive war debts to France and the United Kingdom, who, in turn, renounce as creditors a good part of the German debt. Summing up, in 1932, Germany achieved a net reduction of more than 98% of the debts that forced it to have launched World War I

i believe the answer to your question is b. pay your bills early

c. the king has significantly abused the colonists' rights many times over a long period of time.