Which statement describes the most likely effect that economic inequality had on European countries after World War I?

Economic imbalance among European countries.

Explanation:

The beginning of the war in Europe was greeted with different economic opportunities in the countries. Direct participants in the war and the largest European powers of the time, such as Russia, Germany, and Great Britain, had different economic capacities. Germany and Great Britain were financially stable. Waging war in economic terms was not a problem for them. On the other hand, Russia did not have a developed industry. The imperial government in that country was late in engaging in industrial flows that had been current in Western Europe for decades. This was not a problem only in Russia but in most of Eastern Europe. Such circumstances came to the fore at the front as well. The army of Tsarist Russia had many problems, the lack of quality weapons, footwear, and clothing were everyday problems.

- "made the south's economy grow rapidly and a small effect that a lot of people don't know is that it made the more demand of slaves and cotton products. and also new states formed due to plantations growing in size."

< 3

the phenomenon that would be cited as evidence of increased economic interdependence between europe and the americas is  the development of mercantilism.

this theory suggests that the wealth of a country depends on its economic assets, or capital.

hope this : )