why didn't the USSR respond with force to the East German and Polish revolts, as they had back in the 50s and 60s?

In opposition to the translations of US intelligence, no arrangements were in progress for even negligible Soviet mediation at the time martial law was forced, as per declassified Soviet archives. On 25 August 1980, an uncommon commission was made in Moscow to figure strategy because of advancements in Poland. It was going by senior Socialist Coalition ideologist Mikhail Suslov, and included KGB administrator Yuri Andropov, unfamiliar clergyman Andrei Gromyko, and safeguard serve Dmitriy Ustinov. They were hesitant to mediate in Poland, reviewing the 1970 Clean fights, and managing issues in the continuous Soviet Afghan War.

The circumstance in Poland in December 1980 had matches with the circumstance in Afghanistan before the Soviet Association in the long run chose to mediate there precisely a year sooner, which prompted results and a deep Soviets' relations with the US.

Explanation:

The Polish revolts of 1980–1981, related with the development of the Fortitude mass development in Poland, tested the Soviet Association's authority over its satellite states in the Eastern Bloc.

Unexpectedly in any case, the Kremlin kept away from military intercession, not at all like on past events, for example, the Prague Spring of 1968 and the Hungarian Transformation of 1956, and along these lines left the Clean initiative under Broad Wojciech Jaruzelski to force martial law to manage the resistance all alone.

early human migrations are the earliest migrations and expansions of archaic and modern humans across continents and are believed to have begun approximately 2 million years ago with the out of africa migration of homo erectus. this initial migration was followed by other archaic humans including h. heidelbergensis, which lived around 500,000 years ago and was the likely ancestor of both denisovans and neanderthals. early hominids were said to have "crossed land bridges that were eventually covered in water" .

within africa, homo sapiens dispersed around the time of its speciation, roughly 300,000 years ago.the "recent african origin" paradigm suggests that the anatomically modern humans outside of africa descend from a population of homo sapiens migrating from east africa roughly 70,000 years ago and spreading along the southern coast of asia and to oceania before 50,000 years ago. modern humans spread across europe about 40,000 years ago.

the migrating modern human populations are known to have interbred with local varieties of archaic humans, so that contemporary human populations are descended in small part (below 10% contribution) from regional varieties of archaic humans.

after the last glacial maximum, north eurasian populations migrated to the americas about 20,000 years ago. northern eurasia was peopled after 12,000 years ago, in the beginning holocene. arctic canada and greenland were reached by the paleo-eskimo expansion around 4,000 years ago. finally, polynesia was peopled after 2,000 years ago, by the austronesian expansion.

the group i'm selecting: greeks.

a first group of greek immigrants came to the us in the 1850s. the second group came to america starting in the 1890s due to economic opportunities they didn't have back in their home caused by the hardships of ottoman rule. greek immigration was 90% male, many of them expected to work and return to greece after earning enough capital, but ultimately had to remain in the us after the greek genocide.