Consider the following excerpt from Stefan Zweig written in the early twentieth century: "This 'social morality,' which on the one hand privately pre-supposed the existence of sexuality and its natural course, but on the other would not recognize it openly at any price, was doubly deceitful. While it winked one eye at a young man and even encouraged him with the other 'to sow his wild oats,' as the kindly language of the home put it, in the case of a woman it studiously shut both eyes and acted as if it were blind." What does Zweig argue about the double standard that existed in the early twentieth century?

In this excerpt, Stefan Zweig argues that the "social morality" that prevailed during this time period accepted the fact that sexuality existed. However, it did not deal with this fact in an effective way. Zweig argues that people would tolerate sexuality and sexual desires when they came from a man. They would even encourage them. However, these were ignored and hidden when they came from a woman. This is why Zweig consideres that a duoble standard existed at this time.

congress was not thoroughly prohibiting states from funding religious schools.

byzantine empire is the answer i think you are looking for.

hope this : )