Jonas wrote the following sentence in an analysis comparing Act 5, Scene 3 of The Winter's Tale with "Pygmalion and Galatea." In my opinion, Hermione shouldn't have been so ready to forgive her husband, but in Galatea's case, there was no problem
with the past.
Which revision correctly uses formal style?
A. I still think that Hermione forgives her husband too easily, but in any case, this detail differs from Ovid's story
because Galatea has no past at all.
B. I'm sure most readers agree that Hermione lets Leontes off the hook for his past deeds way too easily. Galatea is
another story, though, since she has no past.
C. As a former statue, Galatea has no past at all, but it's even worse for Hermione, who really forgives her husband's
past actions too easily.
D. Some would argue that Hermione forgives her husband's past cruel actions too easily, but this detail differs from
Ovid's story because Galatea has no past at all.
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