If labor productivities were exactly proportional to wage levels internationally, this would A) not negate the logical basis for trade in the Ricardian model. B) render the Ricardian model theoretically correct but practically useless. C) negate the logical basis for trade in the Ricardian model. D) negate the applicability of the Ricardian model if the number of products were greater than the number of trading partners. E) demonstrate the validity of the Ricardian model.

A)not negate the logical basis for trade in the Ricardian model.

Explanation:

Trade can be regarded as basic economic concept which involves the buying as well as selling of goods and services, having a compensation that is been paid by a buyer to a seller.

The Ricardian model can be regarded as model that incorporates the standard assumptions of a perfect competition. This model in it's simplest form give assumption of two countries that are producing two goods, but uses one factor of production, the goods here are usually assumed to be identical, or to be homogeneous, within as well as across countries. It should be noted that when there is higher wage, there will be greater number of workers that are willing to work and vice versa, which defined the relationship between wages and productivity. productivity gives the

measurement of how efficiently labor

is been utilized when producing goods and services.

It should be noted that If labor productivities were exactly proportional to wage levels internationally, this would not negate the logical basis for trade in the Ricardian model.

answer; ///i believe the correct   answer is (e) transformational;

i would say iii (3) because in order to compare a price you have to use as a reference other near stores because it's its

hope i explained myself