Can a set of indifference curves be upward sloping? if so, what would this tell you about the two goods?

D.  cannot be upward sloping because this violates the assumption that more is better than less, indicating that one of the goods is a "bad."

Explanation:

The curve of indifference is the curve at which the combination of two products is shown in such a way that the consumer gets equal satisfaction making the consumer distinct.

It cannot be upward sloping as it makes the comparison between the good and the bad item that represents the good item is more better than the bad item that reflects one of the items is bad

This is an incomplete question, the options are shown below:

A.cannot be upward sloping because this violates the assumption that more is better than less, indicating that one of the goods is a "neutral."

B.cannot be upward sloping because this violates the assumption of transitivity, indicating that one of the goods is a"neutral good."

C.cannot be upward sloping because this violates they the assumption of completeness, indicating that one of the goods is a"bad."

D. cannot be upward sloping because this violates the assumption that more is better than less, indicating that one of the goods is a "bad."

E. cannot be upward sloping because this violates the assumption of transitivity, indicating that preferences are not consistent.

answer; ///i believe the best answer is (d) replace negative self talk with positive self-talk;

answer; possession utility;