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Biology, 20.04.2020 20:13 neneleey1941

A 6-month-old vaccinated infant arrives in the ED with a 12-hour history of poor feeding, emesis, and irritability. On exam, she is ill-appearing with T 39.2 C, P 160 bpm, R 40 bpm, BP 80/50 mmHg. CBC shows WBC 11.2, Hgb 13.5, Plt 250. Urinalysis shows > 100 WBC per hpf, positive leukocyte esterase, and positive nitrites. She has no history of prior urinary tract infection. Chest x-ray is negative. Urine and blood cultures are pending. After bringing her fever down, she is still uninterested in drinking, but her exam improved, and you are confident she does not have meningitis, so an LP is not performed.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A. Oral ampicillin
B. Oral ampicillin + gentamicin
C. Intravenous ciprofloxacin
D. Intravenous ceftriaxone
E. Intravenous piperacillin + tazobactam

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