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Geneticists sometimes use the following test for the nullness of an allele in a diploid organism: If the abnormal phenotype seen in a homozygote for the allele is identical to that seen in a heterozygote (where one chromosome carries the allele in question and the homologous chromosome is known to be completely deleted for the gene) then the allele is null. What is the underlying rationale for this test?
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Geneticists sometimes use the following test for the nullness of an allele in a diploid organism: If...
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